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McCulloch v.Maryland


A) ruled in favor of state-centered federalism.
B) asserted that the necessary and proper clause was a restriction on the power of the national government.
C) affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law.
D) established the Supreme Court's power to judge constitutional issues.
E) allowed for a narrow reading of the Constitution.

F) B) and E)
G) A) and B)

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Which of the following is a correct statement about commerce power in the U.S.?


A) The power to regulate commerce is an enumerated power of Congress.
B) The Constitution does not delineate the dividing line between interstate commerce and intrastate commerce.
C) The Supreme Court has ruled that manufacturing is part of intrastate commerce and thus subject to state regulation only.
D) Congress invoked the commerce power in passing a federal law that prohibited the possession of guns within one thousand feet of a school.
E) All these answers are correct

F) C) and E)
G) A) and E)

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If a state accepts a federal grant-in-aid,it must


A) comply with federal restrictions on its use.
B) reimburse the federal government after a specified period.
C) match the funds with twice that amount in state funds.
D) reduce its income tax rates to adjust for the increased income.
E) None of these answers is correct.

F) A) and D)
G) A) and C)

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In Lochner v.New York (1905) ,the Supreme Court ruled that


A) the doctrine of separate but equal was constitutional.
B) state regulation of labor practices violated firms' property rights.
C) the Fourth Amendment did not apply to interstate commerce.
D) factory practices could only be regulated by the states.
E) factory practices could only be regulated by the federal government.

F) A) and C)
G) B) and D)

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Fiscal federalism refers to the


A) coordinated fiscal policy decisions of the federal government and the states.
B) expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments.
C) national banking system first established by Alexander Hamilton in the 1790s.
D) fact that both the federal government and the states have the power to tax.
E) ability of the states to manipulate federal decision making.

F) B) and E)
G) C) and D)

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National authority has greatly expanded in the twentieth century in large part because


A) the states and the federal government have become increasingly interdependent.
B) constitutional amendments have opened the way for wider application of national authority.
C) the state governments have shown themselves to be an ineffective level of government.
D) the Democrats have been in control of Congress for most of the century.
E) Americans like the idea of "big government."

F) A) and B)
G) D) and E)

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Dual federalism held that


A) the states were equal to the national government in all respects.
B) a precise separation of national and state authority was both possible and desirable.
C) national and state authority were indivisible.
D) the Senate and the House were equal in their federal authority.
E) None of these answers is correct.

F) None of the above
G) A) and D)

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The TANF aspect of the Welfare Reform Act


A) was a categorical grant that restricted federal assistance to three years but limited state discretion in how to use the funds.
B) was a block grant that, among other aspects, restricted federal assistance to five years.
C) was a categorical grant that placed no time restrictions on federal assistance but dramatically limited state discretion in how to use the funds.
D) was a block grant with no time or activity restrictions on how to use federal funds.
E) ended direct federal welfare assistance to the states in grants of any form.

F) A) and C)
G) B) and E)

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Political conservatives who favor more political power devolved back to the states would likely prefer which of the following?


A) categorical grants
B) block grants
C) Pell grants
D) higher tax rates for the wealthy
E) None of these answers is correct.

F) B) and C)
G) A) and E)

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Devolution is the


A) passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels.
B) expansion of national authority that began in the 1930s.
C) contraction of state authority and the expansion of local government authority.
D) expansion of national authority that began in the 1960s.
E) None of these answers is correct.

F) A) and B)
G) A) and C)

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In key decisions early in the New Deal era,the Supreme Court


A) invalidated key pieces of FDR's New Deal legislation.
B) upheld FDR's "court-packing" proposal.
C) ruled that segregation violated the Fourteenth Amendment.
D) ruled that public accommodations were part of interstate commerce.
E) invalidated the commerce clause.

F) A) and B)
G) D) and E)

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Which choice below describes the American change in governmental structure in 1787?


A) unitary to confederal
B) confederal to unitary
C) federal to unitary
D) confederal to federal
E) federal to confederal

F) B) and D)
G) A) and E)

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Viewed in historical terms,federalism has been a


A) contentious and dynamic system that has adapted to the needs of the time.
B) theoretical principle, in that constitutional provisions for federalism have had virtually no impact on the relationship between the nation and the states.
C) flawed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and the states has been a constant source of problems without many positive benefits.
D) fixed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and states is almost completely defined by provisions of the Constitution.
E) poor replacement for the confederal system which existed before the Constitution.

F) D) and E)
G) A) and E)

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The writers of the Constitution established a federal system of government in part because


A) the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved.
B) a federal government alone would never be able to command the identity or loyalty of its citizenry.
C) Locke and Montesquieu had concluded it was superior to other systems of government.
D) the British political system was based on the federal principle.
E) the states would be valuable sources of revenue for a federal government.

F) A) and B)
G) B) and E)

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What was the impact of the Industrial Revolution upon the concept of dual federalism?


A) It brought about the immediate end of the concept.
B) It created dominant business interests that raised questions about the suitability of dual federalism as a governing concept.
C) It had no impact at all upon the concept.
D) It led to passage of the Tenth Amendment.
E) It made the doctrine of nullification a political reality.

F) C) and E)
G) C) and D)

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Which of the following is most closely related to the concept of implied powers?


A) necessary and proper clause
B) supremacy clause
C) Tenth Amendment
D) the commerce clause
E) the power to tax

F) B) and E)
G) C) and D)

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The Constitution allows states to


A) raise an army in peacetime.
B) print money.
C) make commercial agreements with other states without the consent of Congress.
D) govern intrastate commerce.
E) govern interstate commerce.

F) All of the above
G) B) and E)

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What did Newt Gingrich declare about federalism in 1994?


A) that government had moved too far away from the federalism of the early twentieth century
B) that power was beginning to swing back to the federal government
C) that the 1960s-style federalism was dead
D) that federalism was the only system that could preserve the power of the states
E) that the federal government had betrayed the promise of states' rights in the Constitution

F) A) and C)
G) A) and E)

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Which of the following individuals would agree that each state should be allowed to determine for itself the extent to which national authority restricts its actions?


A) John Marshall
B) John C. Calhoun
C) Lyndon Johnson
D) Franklin D. Roosevelt
E) None of these answers is correct.

F) D) and E)
G) B) and E)

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States in which region receive more of their revenue from the federal government than do most other states?


A) the West
B) the Northeast
C) the Midwest
D) the South
E) the noncontiguous states of Alaska and Hawaii

F) A) and C)
G) C) and D)

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